A member asked:

How is it possible for a person to have both myopia and farsightedness?

A doctor has provided 1 answer

It is not possible: You can have myopia in one eye, and hyperopia in the other, but not both in one eye. Unless you are actually referring to the loss of ability to read without glasses, which happens to everyone in their mid to late 40's. This is actually 'presbyopia', which some people confuse with farsightedness.

Answered 7/3/2012

5.8k views

Thank

Related Questions

A member asked:

Any suggestions on which is more common: myopia or hyperopia?

A doctor has provided 1 answer

A member asked:

Do you know which is more common in people, myopia or hyperopia?

A doctor has provided 1 answer

A member asked:

If aging causes farsightedness, does it also cure nearsightedness?

A doctor has provided 1 answer

A member asked:

I don't understand;hyperopia or astigmatism or myopia?

3 doctors weighed in across 3 answers