A member asked:

For syphilis, from non-reactive to 1:1 is a 1-dilution rise, and is not felt to be significant. is that correct? wanted to make sure non-reactive to 1:1 is normal after so many years even without exposure? thanks?

Q: for syphilis, from non-reactive to 1:1 is a 1-dilution rise, and is not felt to be significant. is that correct? wanted to make sure non-reactive to 1:1 is normal after so many years even without exposure? thanks?

: Duplicate question. See previous reply.

A doctor has provided 1 answer

Dr. Hunter Handsfield answered

Specializes in Infectious Disease

Duplicate question. See previous reply.

Dr Kuitems agreed

Answered 3/11/2023

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Thank

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A member asked:

For syphilis, from non-reactive to 1:1 is a 1-dilution rise, and is not felt to be significant. is that correct? wanted to make sure non-reactive to 1:1 is normal after so many years even without exposure? thanks?

A doctor has provided 1 answer

Dr. Hunter Handsfield answered

Dr Kuitems agreed

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