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X-ray on lumbar spine with flex ext says -bilateral pars defect at l5 with approximately 3 mm anterolisthesis relative to s1, spina bifida occulta at l5. my mri shows the same as well as- mild facet arthropathy at l3-4 and l4-5. what's this mean?
Does anyone know a spine surgeon who will consider minimally invasive lumbar decompression surgery for spinal stenosis without fusion when there is single level spondylolisthesis at L5-S1?
Hi could you please explain what "moderately intense increased tracer uptake at the L5-S1 level of the lumbar spine and L4-5 level and right hip joint?
What is Spondylolysis of L5-S1 and what are causes? Also, would muscle injury (I.E sprain/strain) to the Lumbar region cause Sciatica symptoms?
Pelvic xray revealed, "narrowing of L5 s1 disc space". What does this mean? Could this be causing lower back/pelvic pain?
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