A member asked:

I asked on here about sum1with genital warts but has never had any sexual contact at all & a dr replied&said it would be caused by hpv strain 1 or 2(common wart)if no sexual contact but when i look that up it says not posible on genitals.whats true?

A doctor has provided 1 answer
Dr. James Ferguson answered

Specializes in Pediatrics

Wart strains are specific to the areas they choose to infect. The strains that infect normal skin are different than the wart strains. Genital wart strains pass by genital-to-genital contact. Genital wart strains can be passed by an infected mother with active warts to her baby delivered vaginally. These become evident by age 2. If they did not get them that way, they did through sexual contact.

Answered 8/24/2022

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