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Very close.: Tendonits is a bit more acute and sharply painful. Dysfunction (pttd) refers more to the overuse/overstrecthing of the tendon for mechanical reasons. A person with pttd can also have tendonitis, whereas a patient with tenodonitis may or may not have pttd. ...Read moreSee 1 more doctor answer
Good question: Osteotimy is a cut in the bone. In a derotational osteotimy, the bone is cut and then rotated to a better position and this corrected position is usually then held in place by a plate and screws. In this case, the surgery is done on the tibia and femur. The most common indication would be severe malalignment of the leg such as a severe case of "in- toeing." ...Read more
Bone bruising involving the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle. Partial thickness tear of the medial collateral ligament adjacent to the fem.
Athroscopic debridement & menisectomy, partial medial & lateral. Grd1 oa changes lt medial femoral condyle, large posterior horn tear lateral meniscus?
Yikes: The wear on your lateral side and lateral meniscus tear is a not great. The lateral meniscus is responsible for balancing and distribution of force more so than the medial. Be very cautious returning to plant and pivot sports. ...Read more
Complete overriding fracture distal thirds of radius and ulna, bayonet apposition heals? How long?
Needs surgery: If the pt you are describing is you (26 years old) then the answer is it would most certainly be best to have this fracture fixed surgically after which it would take about 3 months for it to heal reasonably well but 2 years for it to fully remodel also check you vit d level and try to get it up to >50 ng/ml for optimal healing. ...Read moreSee 2 more doctor answers
High grade partial thickness bursal surface tear distal junction supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons?
MRI diagnosis: The best results happen when a clear diagnosis is established with a detailed examination and history and confirmed with testing such as an MRI or emg, not the other way around. Be careful about having surgery based on an MRI report. Learn more: http://www.Theshouldercenter.Com/shoulder-pain.Htm and http://www.Theshouldercenter.Com/rotator-cuff-tear.Htm. ...Read moreSee 1 more doctor answer
Mri, mild joint efusion seen, thickning lateral colateral legamnt sugest tendinosis, bone edema involve femora condyle n tibial plateu further treatment?
Left knee medial compartment joint replacement hardware with abnormal
uptake of tracer in the medial left femoral condyle proximal to the prosthesis.
Varies : It varies in part on the type of scan you underwent and the timing of when your knee replace my was done as well. A standard bone scan will light up with increased bone activity and would be concerning for loosening, infection, or fracture. A white blood labeled scan that lights up whilst be concerning for infection. I would discuss with your surgeon. ...Read more
Yes.: Often the terms are used interchangeably.Get a more detailed answer ›
Mri says partial tear of anterior, posterior cruciate ligament, grade3 chondromalacia, subchondral cysts in medial tibial condyle, is operatn right thng?
See good knee...: This is purely an MRI reading of your knee.'partial' acl and PCL tears in your age group means very little to me unless you had a very significant , recent knee injury w/ a hemarthrosis .( which u don't have).'chondromalacia'( of what..Mfc, lfc, patella?) means you have a component of arthritis in your knee. See a qualified, respected knee surgeon to discuss your options . Best of luck! ...Read moreSee 2 more doctor answers
Surgery type: If you have a knee angular deformity, it can be corrected by cutting a bone (an osteotomy) near the knee joint to change the alignment of the knee. A knock-knee deformity is also called genu valgum, from the latin roots. The correction of a knock knee is usually done by cutting the end of the femur to make the correction. The term "distal" refers to end of the femur at the level of the knee. ...Read more
Diffuse grade 2-3 chondromalacia in lateral compartment w/lg area of full thickness cartilage loss & fissuring f/weightbearing lat. femoral condyle?
Yes: The distal (lower end) fibula is also know as the lateral malleolus. The weber classification of ankle fractures classifies based on the location of the fracture (break) with respect to the syndesmosis (connection between tibia and fibula just above the ankle joint. A = below syndesmosis, b = at level, c = above. As you go from a to b to c, the risk of syndesmosis injury increases. ...Read moreSee 3 more doctor answers
Had a distal tibial fracture 4m ago. I have started walking now but wid brace. Don't have pain but can't walk properly. How long'll it take to heal?
Transverse, comminuted distal tibial fracture 4m ago. Surgery was carried out wid plates. Can walk wid brace, uneven gait. Will i b abl 2 walk properly?
Maybe: It depends on the nature of the distal tibia fracture and if it involved the articular surface or not. Fractures that involve the joint surface can be life-changing injuries. If the articular surface was uninjured, you should regain normal walking cadence, but it could take several months as distal tibia fractures are slow to heal. It's hard to say without seeing the x-rays. ...Read more
I had a distal tibial fracture 4m ago. Transverse n comminuted .Surgery was carried out wid plates .Bones r weak. How long it'll take to heal ?
Should be healed by: Now. Weakness is from being immobilized to allow the bone to heal by non wt bearing. Once your orthopod deems the fx healed, he'll start a supervised p therapy, to increase: strength of muscles & range of motion in your ankle/foot. This can take about 3-4 months, depending on the severity of the injury, result of the surgery, pain control, etc, and how motivated a pt. Is in improving himself. ...Read more
If mra showed abi on right dorsalis pedis is zero before surgery should doctor freak out after aortic bypass surgery o again then he does a r ileofemarol thrombolectomy and a intraoperative angiogram and a r distal pop-tibial exposure then a r greater sap
I : I believe that you also asked this question elsewhere, so escuse me if the first part of my answer is a repeat. The ankle-brachial index (abi) is a screening test done with blood pressure cuffs and an ultrasound probe. An mra, in contrast, uses magnetic fields and injected dye to directly visualize the anatomy of the blood vessels. Therefore, while an mra might show a blocked dorsalis pedis artery, it would not be reported as showing an abi of zero. The abi tests blood pressure in the dorsalis pedis and the posterior tibial arteries and compares those measurements to blood pressures in the arms. If the pressures in the feet are significantly lower than those in the arms, and/or the patient has clinical signs of decreased blood flow to the feet, then one may decide to intervene. It sounds to me like you had no pulse in your dorsais pedis artery before your surgery, regardless of what your abi might have been. This could have happened because of chronic blockage or because of new clot that might have formed a) because of decreased flow in an already-diseased dorsalis pedis or b) because of clot that came from abnormal vessels upstream. You had an aortic bypass, so there certainly was disease upstream. It sounds to me like your surgery was a difficult one. However, it's hard to know whether your doctor was fixing problems that were caused by the surgery or whether you just had a lot of disease to begin with and he or she was trying to fix a of of problems at the same time. Unfortunately, a lot of people with bad arterial disease wind up in a wheelchair or with amputations despite the best efforts of good doctors. Still, if you think your doctor made a mistake, you should certainly talk it over with him or her and consider seeing another doctor for a second opinion. ...Read moreSee 1 more doctor answer
I have a red, dry, itchy area about the size of a dime on the medial distal tbial area just above my ankles, on both legs. Been there about a month. ?
When they: Become bothersome to the personGet a more detailed answer ›
Healing by 6-8 weeks: Newer osteotomy techniques and implants may allow for earlier weight bearing (in a locked hinged brace) than the historical standard of 6 weeks on crutches. Many are done as true outpatient surgery. Rehabilitation 2x weekly for 3 months is expected. Unlimited (nonimpact aerobic activity) usually OK by 3 months. Discuss your specific rehabilitation with your surgeon. ...Read more
Depends: Depends on location of osteochondroma. They are generally located near the knee. Most time off is due to healing of the wound that can take several weeks. If it is a pedunculated lesion it will not violate cortex too much and usually can weight bear as tolerated immediately after surgery. If it is sessile and requires alot of violation of cortex some degree of weight restriction may be requd. ...Read more
It is genetic: Tibial hemimelia syndrome (affects both legs) is believed to be due to an autosomal dominant gene passed on from one of the parents, while unilateral tibial hemimelia only affects one limb, and is believed to be due to an autosomal recessive gene, passed on by both parents. It may also be a spontaneous gene mutation, in which neither parent passed on the gene, but it just developed spontaneously. ...Read more
That you are normal: The tibial tuberosity is the bump of bone on the upper part of your shin to which the tendon from the kneecap attaches. If you are asking a question about an x-ray interpretation, i think you may have left something out of your description. ...Read moreSee 2 more doctor answers
Hopefully improvemen: Those surgeries are generally done to improve a malalignment of the leg, and so hopefully the surgery will dramatically improve your alignment issues. In terms of the surgical recovery itself, it is similar to surgeries that we do for a broken leg where there is a gradual improvement of soreness over 10-14 days and a restriction in weight bearing 6-12 weeks based upon more specifics. ...Read more
It depends: There are two types of tibial hemimelia. The bilateral "syndrome" affects both legs and is believed to be autosomal dominant, so there would be a 50:50 chance that another child will be born with it. The unilateral tibial hemimelia (1 leg affected) is thought to be autosomal recessive and a 25% chance (1 in 4) of a child being born with it, and a 50% chance the child will be a carrier. ...Read more